Help asap i will do brainlist and everything

Answer:

5 divided by 8

Step-by-step explanation:

/ is another symbol for ÷

Answer:

5 divided by 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2 hours, 9 minutes (and 19 seconds if u wanna be exact)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The correct answer is: Option B: [tex]a_n = 25+(-4)(n-1)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given sequence is:

25, 21, 17, 13,...

Here

a1 = 25

a2 = 21

a3 = 17

First of all we have to determine the common difference. Common difference is the difference between consecutive terms of an arithmetic sequence.

So,

[tex]d = a_2 - a_1 = 21-25 = -4\\d =a_3-a_2 = 17-21 = -4[/tex]

The explicit formula is given by:

[tex]a_n = a_1 + (n-1)d[/tex]

Putting the value of a1 and d

[tex]a_n = 25 + (n-1)(-4)\\a_n = 25-4n+4\\a_n = 29-4n[/tex]

Hence,

The correct answer is: Option B: [tex]a_n = 25+(-4)(n-1)[/tex]

Answer:

P = 11x + 14

Step-by-step explanation:

6x - 1 + 5x + 6 + 9

Move them around

6x + 5x - 1 + 6 + 9

Combine like terms

11x + 5 + 9

Add

11x + 14

Answer:

[tex]P=11x+14[/tex]

Answer:

line equation: y= 2x-1

Slope intercept formula

y=mx+b

m is also the slope

b is the y-intercept

y=2x+(-1)

+ positive sign and -negative sign= - negative sign

y=2x-1

Answer :

y=2x-1

Answer:A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

hi

Step-by-step explanation:

hdisbkaab

Answer: If you were born in April you a amiable, and always ready to help others and a faithful lover.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

to convert a mixed number to an improper fraction: take the big whole new on the right and multiply it by the denominators or number on the bottom of the fraction. then add thay amount to the numerator, or number on top and leave the denominator as it was before

example: 2 3/5 = 13/5

you can dissect the example to figure out the formula (formula is the way to solve an equation)

Answer:

Since you didn’t give us a mixed number is to turn into an improper fraction, I’ll show you how to do it.

Step-by-step Explanation:

First, you need to multiply the denominator by the whole number. Then, add the numerator to it. Lastly, you need to put the same denominator in that was from the mixed number to get an improper fraction. I’ll give you an example:

Look at the diagram below ↓

You can see that you need to multiply the denominator 4 and the whole number 2, which gives you 8. Then you add the numerator 3 to 8, which gives you 11. Lastly, you need to use the same denominator from the mixed, which was 4, and put it with the 11 to get the improper fraction [tex]\frac{11}{4}[/tex].

I hope you understand and that this helps with your question :)

Answer:

1) 4/35

2) 11/14

3) 5/6

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the number of selections possible.

[tex]\frac{10!}{(10-4)!4!} = 210[/tex]

There are 210 possible selections. Now we can determine the possibility for each group. For the first probability, since we only want one member from each committee, you would create a fraction by (group members in total / group member being extracted). For this instance, since its only one, we will do whole numbers. Multiply each other.

[tex]4*3*2*1=24[/tex]

The probability for each member to get selected from each kind is : [tex]24/210[/tex] or can be simplified to [tex]4/35[/tex].

The probability of (I assume) at least one administrator is slightly different. Separate our two selections, the other three and the administrator. Find the number of selections possible for the other three... 4+3+2 = 9 others.

Find the probability for both a administrator included and three others.

[tex]\frac{11}{3} * \frac{1}{1} \\\frac{11!}{(11-3)!3!} \\\\165[/tex]

[tex]\frac{165}{210} = \frac{11}{14}[/tex]

The probability for an administrator and the other three is 165/210 or 11/14.

For the last one, you will figure out what the probability is for no director and use that % to substract from 100.

4+2+1 = 7

Get selections possible.

[tex]\frac{7!}{(7-4)!4!} = 35[/tex]

Get probability of no director.

[tex]\frac{35}{210} = \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Substract 1/6 from 100%

1 - 1/6 = 5/6

The probability of having at least one director is 5/6.

Answer:

1.450

Step-by-step explanation:

what grade ar4e you in I'm guessing 4th or 5th

Answer:

36

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation would turn out as 23--13

But when there are two negatives, it turns into a positive, creating the equation of 23+13

Then you add to equal 36.

Answer:

yes because on the second one you have to use the distribution property (multiply the term outside the parenthesis by the terms inside them)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Yes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Distribute 6 to (4x+y), and you will get the same expression of 24x+6y.

4x times 6 = 24x

6 x y = 6y

24x+6y

Answer 11/20

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

11/20

Step-by-step explanation:

3/4 - 1/5

Write all numerators above the least common denominator

15-4/20

Subtract numbers

11/20

Answer:

B) 60

Step-by-step explanation:

5*2*3*2=60 types by multiplying all the categories together.

Answer:

the set of parametric equation would be x(t) = 0.25t, y = 0.43t

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the set of parametric equation would be

x(t) = 0.5 cos 60 degrees t , y = 0.5 sin 60 degrees t

x(t) = 0.5 × 0.5t , y = 0.5 × 0.866 t

x(t) = 0.25t, y = 0.43t

Hence the set of parametric equation would be x(t) = 0.25t, y = 0.43t

The same is to be considered

The above equation represents the answer

For the entire practice:

1) B, [tex]x(t)=0.25t[/tex] and [tex]y(t)=0.43t[/tex]

2) B, 4 ft.

3) A, [tex]x=27.82[/tex], [tex]y=-4.9t^2+11.24t[/tex], horizontal distance = 63.71 m

Answer:

650

Step-by-step explanation:

18,000-3,000

13,000

13,000 x 5%

$650

Answer:

$900.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

9 Square Meters

Step-by-step explanation:

3x3=9

Answer:

Triangle ABC is similar to triangle DBE: ∆ABC~∆DBE. ... Therefore, in conformity with first sign of the similarity of triangles, if two angles of one triangle are equal to two angles of another triangle, they are similar to each other. ∠BDE=∠BAC,∠BED=∠BCA ⇒ ∆ABC~∆DBE

Answer:

[tex]y \geqslant 2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Add 14 to both sides.

[tex]14y \geqslant 28[/tex]

2. Divide both sides by 14.

[tex]y \geqslant 2[/tex]

n + 5 = 2n - 6

n - 2n = -6 - 5

-n = -11

n = -11/-1

n = 11

FG = 2n - 6

FG = 2(11) - 6

FG = 22 - 6

FG = 16

Answer:

1=0.32

2=0.25

3=0.28

4=0.30

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to divide each price by the ounces.

$10.24÷32 oz = $0.32

$6.00÷ 24=$.0.25

$4.48÷16=$0.28

$2.40÷ 8=$0.30

Answer:

1. 3

2. -45

3. -25

4. 220

5. 57

6. -100

7. -209

Answer:

1.) -7 + 10 = 3  (Different signs, so you subtract and keep the sign of the bigger number).

2.) -30 - 15 = -45 (same sign, so you just add and keep the same sign)

3.) 65 - 90 = -25 (Different signs, so you subtract and keep the sign of the bigger number).

4.) 100 + 120 = 220 (both positive,you add and keep the same sign, which is +)

5.) -32 + 89 = 57  (Different signs, so you subtract and keep the sign of the bigger number).

6.) 100 - 200 = -100  (Different signs, so you subtract and keep the sign of the bigger number).

2.) -75 - 12 = -87  (same sign, so you just add and keep the same sign)

Answer:

Well, an infinite amount of numbers. . .

Step-by-step explanation:

1 and 2 would work